The Words
First,
Jesus broadens our idea of what constitutes adultery to include lust.
“You
have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ But
I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already
committed adultery with her in his heart.”
(Matt 5:27-28 NIV)
And
then he follows up by showing the adulterous nature of remarriage
after divorce.
“It
has been said, ‘Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a
certificate of divorce.’ But I tell you that anyone who
divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, makes her the victim
of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits
adultery.”
(Matt 5:31-32 NIV)
While
difficult to follow, the teaching that it is sinful to look at a
woman lustfully is fairly easy to understand. The more difficult and
divisive words are found in Matthew 32. Our understanding of what
Jesus meant by “except for sexual immorality” can lead us in a
variety of directions.
The
Protestant Understanding
Protestants
are very divided over this issue. How serious is divorce? When is it
acceptable? When is remarriage an option? So, I will have to deal
with generalities based on my experience, and it cannot be assumed
that this applies to all Protestant groups.
What
I have found to be common, is a line of reasoning something like
this:
According
to my reading, Jesus says we can divorce and remarry, if our spouse
has committed adultery. If this is true, then if our spouse violates
our wedding vows in other serious ways, such as abusive behavior,
this would also be valid grounds for divorce and remarriage.
Certain
translations of the Bible seem to assume this is what was meant, and
in an attempt at clarity, alter the words of Christ to fit this
understanding.
“...
if a man divorces his wife for any cause other than her
unfaithfulness...”
(Matt 5:32 GNT)
“But
I say that a man who divorces his wife, unless she has been
unfaithful...”
(Matt
5:32 NLT)
But
this leaves us with several questions. Where do we draw the line on
what constitutes a violation of wedding vows which is grounds for
divorce? Didn't Jesus just say that lust was adultery, and if so,
isn't this grounds for almost any woman to divorce her husband and
remarry? And if this is the case, then what purpose is served by
warning us against divorce in the first place? And, why doesn't the
parallel verse in Luke 16:18 give us exceptions to the inviolable
nature of marriage?
The
Catholic Understanding
I
always favored the Catholic understanding because it seems clear to
me that Jesus regards divorce as a very serious matter, and he warns
severely against remarriage. Even as a Protestant I had an
understanding of the inviolable sacramental nature of marriage. But
Catholics are not allowed to remarry after a divorce, unless they can
show that their marriage was invalid (I'm not getting into the issue
of what many Catholics do, or whether the Church grants too many
annulments. I'm looking at the actual teaching of the Church). This
seems to go against the exception provided by Christ. Didn't Jesus
say that we could remarry if our wives committed adultery?
Let's
look for a clue in another Protestant Bible translation. The
Contemporary English Version records the verse like this:
“But
I tell you not to divorce your wife unless she has committed some
terrible sexual sin. If you divorce her, you will cause her to
be unfaithful, just as any man who marries her is guilty of taking
another man's wife.”
(Matt 5:32 CEV)
This
isn't very different from the other versions, but this version
includes a footnote saying, “some
terrible sexual sin:
This probably refers to the laws about the wrong kinds of marriages
that are forbidden in Leviticus 18.6-18 or to some serious sexual
sin.”
Discovering
this greatly alleviated my confusion on this matter. If the first
meaning is correct, that this “refers to the laws about the wrong
kind of marriages that are forbidden,” then this verse is entirely
consistent with the Catholic teaching. A man's wedding vows are
rendered null if it turns out that their marriage was a “forbidden”
kind of marriage, not valid from the start. In this case, the sexual
sin was not an extramarital affair as suggested by many translations,
rather it was the false marriage which was “unchaste” by its own
failing, having been improperly established.
If
the marriage was not valid to begin with, then it would not be
adultery to remarry after such a divorce. This is the Catholic
teaching on the matter, and it is the one teaching that does justice
to all the relevant scriptures. The Catholic teaching is consistent,
and follows the teaching of our Lord, properly professing the gravity
of divorce and remarriage.
“Divorce
is a grave offense against the natural law. It claims to break the
contract, to which the spouses freely consented, to live with each
other till death. Divorce does injury to the covenant of salvation,
of which sacramental marriage is the sign. Contracting a new union,
even if it is recognized by civil law, adds to the gravity of the
rupture: the remarried spouse is then in a situation of public and
permanent adultery” (CCC 2384).
2 comments:
I've also heard the following interpretation of this verse: "...anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, makes her the victim of adultery..."
If the wife has been sexually immoral, she's an adulterer and cannot be the victim of said adultery. Jesus is emphasizing that divorce always has adultery in it, even when adultery is not there prima facie!
On an unrelated note, my RSS reader (google reader) doesn't like your blog posts. It'll combine words together (eg, "looks at a woman lustfully has alreadycommitted adultery"). Viewing the page code source shows a missing space, but the page displays fine when I open the website. You'd think it'd work, since blogspot is owned by Google...
That's interesting. My focus was on the words "Except for sexual immorality," and I didn't think about the meanings of alternate translations the next part. Most translations (KJV, DRA, NASB, YLT, NAB, RSV, etc.) say that she is made a adulteress, not that she is made a victim of adultery. My conclusion was that the statement included an assumption that this wife would remarry. This is a huge difference in wording, and I'm actually kind of surprised by it (now that it's been pointed out). The accounts in Luke and Mark are more clear, but don't include this "except in the case of unchastity" part at all.
Post a Comment